Il a écouté Marie et Alice. Il les a écoutées. (direct object in passé composé agrees in gender and number)
BUT: Il a téléphoné à Paul et moi. Il nous a téléphoné. (preceding indirect object does not take agreement)
My question is this, why is the second example an indirect object?? Is it the fact that the verb uses a preposition in the first example?
To me it seems they are similar actions, but according to this worksheet I have this is not the case!
I'm really confused. Thanks for any explanation, Pam
Neil, I agree with your comments and don't wish to be over fussy, but shouldn't Pamela have said in her second sentence not "Il a téléphoné à Paul et moi." but "Il a téléphoné à Paul et à moi."?
Laurie
Avoid the repetition of "à" is a way to sound a bit more formal. This form is what we would write, while your proposal is what we'd say in a real speech, although removing the second "à" would also be acceptable in real speech.